Зубы

Примеры олимпиад по английскому языку. Международные дистанционные конкурсы и олимпиады

Всероссийская олимпиада школьников

I (школьный) этап

Английский язык

7-8 классы

Комплект для учителя

Общее время выполнения работы – 90 минут

Максимальное количество баллов – 70

В комплект материалов, необходимых для проведения конкурса входят:

2. Описание процедуры проведения конкурса

3. Текст задания

4. Ключи

5. Бланк ответа (для каждого участника)

ЗАДАНИЯ ОЛИМПИАДЫ ТВОРЧЕСКИ ОРИЕНТИРОВАНЫ И НЕ ЯВЛЯЮТСЯ ПРОСТЫМ ПОВТОРЕНИЕМ ФОРМАТА ЕГЭ

Понимание устного текста (Listening)

На выполнение заданий отводится 10 минут , в которые входит и внесение ответов в ответные листы. Задание предъявляется дважды.

Критерии оценивания : За каждый правильный ответ дается 1 балл. Максимальное количество баллов – 7.

Понимание письменного текста (Reading)

Задание по чтению направлено на понимание текста. От ученика требуется прочитать и понять текст, затем, прочитав высказывания под текстом, сделать альтернативный выбор (правильно/неправильно). На выполнение задания отводится 20 минут , в которые входит и внесение ответов в ответные листы. Правильность выполнения заданий проверяется по ключам.

Критерии оценивания : За каждый правильный ответ дается 1 балл . Максимальное количество баллов – 8.

Лексико-грамматический тест (Use of English)

Всего в данном блоке 35 вопросов.

Учащиеся должны продемонстрировать соответствующий уровень владения лексическим материалом и умение оперировать им в условиях множественного выбора

Первое задание - это текст, содержащий пропуски. Учащемуся требуется проявить знания грамматики и лексики и вставить в пропуски по одному слову, предложенному из выбора. За каждый правильный ответ дается 1 балл . Максимальное количество баллов – 10.

Во втором задании необходимо выразить лексическую фразу одним словом. За каждый правильный ответ дается 1 балл . Максимальное количество баллов – 14.

Третье задание требует от учащегося знания правил употребления артиклей, степени сравнения прилагательных, видовременных форм глагола и т.д. За каждый правильный ответ дается 1 балл . Максимальное количество баллов – 11.

Правильность выполнения заданий проверяется по ключам.

Письменная речь (Writing)

Задание представляет собой небольшую письменную работу (письменное высказывание с элементами рассуждения). Рекомендуемое количество слов – 80-100. При проверке данного задания стоит обратить внимание на то, что работа проверяется и оценивается даже, если количество слов будет недостаточным или, наоборот, будет превышать норму. В этом случае по критерию «Содержание» будет ниже количество баллов.

Максимальное количество баллов – 20. Рекомендуемое время для выполнения задания – 35 минут.

Правильность выполнения заданий проверяется по ключам.

Процедура проведения конкурса

Общие правила

Перед входом в аудиторию участник должен предъявить паспорт.
Участники должны сидеть в аудитории на таком расстоянии друг от друга, чтобы не видеть работу соседа.
Участник может взять с собой в аудиторию ручку, очки, шоколад, воду.
В аудиторию не разрешается брать бумагу, справочные материалы (словари, справочники, учебники и т.д.), пейджеры и мобильные телефоны, диктофоны, плейеры и любые другие технические средства.
Во время выполнения задания участник может выходить из аудитории только в сопровождении дежурного.
Участник не может выйти из аудитории с заданием или листом ответов.

Процедура проведения

Каждому участнику перед началом выполнения заданий выдается лист ответов ( Answer Sheet ) и двойной Титульный лист и проводится инструктаж на русском языке по процедуре проведения Олимпиады, заполнению листов ответов и по порядку их сдачи после окончания работы :

Участники заполняют Тит ульный лист с указанием названия работы, номера школы, класса, ФИО.
По окончании работы заполненный Лист ответов вкладывается в Титульный лист и отправляется в пункт шифровки.
НА ЛИСТАХ ОТВЕТОВ КАТЕГОРИЧЕСКИ ЗАПРЕЩАЕТСЯ УКАЗЫВАТЬ ФАМИЛИИ, ДЕЛАТЬ РИСУНКИ ИЛИ КАКИЕ-ЛИБО ОТМЕТКИ, В ПРОТИВНОМ СЛУЧАЕ РАБОТА СЧИТАЕТСЯ ДЕШИФРОВАННОЙ И НЕ ОЦЕНИВАЕТСЯ.
Исправления на листах ответов ошибками не считаются; однако почерк должен быть понятным; спорные случаи (о или а) трактуются не в пользу участника.
Задания выполняются только черными или синими чернилами/ пастой (запрещены красные, зеленые чернила, карандаш).

Перед прослушиванием отрывка член жюри включает запись и дает возможность участникам прослушать самое начало записи. Затем запись выключается, и член жюри обращается к аудитории с вопросом, хорошо ли всем слышно. Если в аудитории кто-то из участников плохо слышит запись, регулируется громкость звучания, и устраняются все технические неполадки, влияющие на качество звучания. Затем запись включается с самого начала, не останавливается и прослушивается до самого конца.

Участники могут ознакомиться с вопросами до прослушивания.

Процедура аудирования записана на диск. ПОСЛЕ ПЕРВОГО ПРОСЛУШИВАНИЯ ЧЛЕН ЖЮРИ ВКЛЮЧАЕТ ЗАПИСЬ ПОВТОРНО. Запись задания на диске предъявляется 2 раза подряд (допускается техническая пауза в 10-15 секунд).

Во время аудирования участники не могут задавать вопросы членам жюри или выходить из аудитории, так как шум может нарушить процедуру проведения конкурса.

Время проведения конкурса ограничено временем, необходимым для прослушивания представленных заданий. Каждое из заданий предъявляется дважды.

Участникам раздаются тексты заданий и бумага для черновиков. В тексте заданий даны все инструкции по выполнению заданий. Участники получают чистую бумагу для черновиков, черновик сдается вместе с листом ответов. Однако проверке подлежат только листы ответов. Черновики не проверяются.

Член жюри в аудитории должен зафиксировать время начала и окончания задания на доске.

За 15 и за 5 минут до окончания работы член жюри в аудитории должен напомнить об оставшемся времени и предупредить о необходимости тщательной проверки работы.

После окончания времени выполнения заданий, листы ответов собираются.

Сразу после написания олимпиады, работы участников передают руководителю ШМО. Проверка работ осуществляется под руководством опытного руководителя дающего указания и инструкции группе проверяющих преподавателей. Критерии оценивания в виде таблицы выдаются на руки каждому проверяющему.

Критерии оценивания

III место	От 50% до 69%
II место	От 70% до 90%
I место	От 91% до 100%

ПРИЛОЖЕНИЕ 1

ШКОЛЬНАЯ ОЛИМПИАДА

7-8 КЛАСС

LISTENING

7 БАЛЛОВ

LISTENING

Eisteddfod is the best known festival in England.

The festival is held twice a year.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

The festival has great medieval history.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

The festival takes place in the town.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

The Chief Druid is the main character of the festival.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

The bard of the year is not awarded.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

Only folk art is presented at the festival.

True 2) False 3)Not stated

READING

8 БАЛЛОВ

Sleep…sleep…sleep

In a normal life a person sleeps for about twenty-five years. But why do we sleep? The simple answer is: we don’t know. We need more sleep when we are young. A baby sleeps for about ten hours. A teenager sleeps for about eight and a half hours. An adult sleeps for seven or eight hours. Old people need only five or six hours.

There are two kinds of sleep. When you go to sleep you go into deep sleep. Your temperature falls, your body relaxes, and you breath slowly. After about half an hour you go into active sleep. This is also called rapid eye movement sleep (or REM sleep), because your eyes move. You dream in both deep sleep and REM sleep, but in REM sleep you dream in pictures. If you wake up in REM sleep you can usually remember your dream. Your body spends about twenty minutes in REM sleep and then goes back into deep sleep for an hour.

Do you ever talk or walk in your sleep? People sleepwalk in deep sleep and sleepwalkers do amazing things. They open doors and windows, they ride bicycles and drive cars. They cook, they take a bath or a shower (often in their pyjamas), they shave, they clean their teeth, they get dressed, they dig the garden and do other things.

Sleepwalkers are asleep, but they have their eyes open and they can see. They can’t wake up easily. If they do, they can’t remember anything. Do you ever sleepwalk? Are you sure? Perhaps you do, but nobody sees you.

Everyone sleeps for eight hours a night.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

Teenagers need less sleep than adults.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

Some people sleep for only one or two hours.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

REM sleep is the same as active sleep.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

You only dream in deep sleep.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

People sleepwalk in REM sleep.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

Sleepwalkers can’t see.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

Sleepwalkers remember everything they do.

1) True 2) False 3) Not stated

TRANSFER ALL YOUR ANSWERS TO YOUR ANSWER SHEET

USE OF ENGLISH

35 БАЛЛОВ

Task 1.

Complete the sentences with the correct words.

It was his ________ for selling the most tickets.

A. prize B. tasks C. news

Most of machines had _________ to earth.

A. expressed. B. covered. C. crashed.

Children often go round the streets raising money for ________.

A. offer B. history. C. charity

She can _________ her chances if she stops smoking.

A. phone B. improve C. depend

What is the _________ of the Forest Service?

A. danger B. bucket C. mascot

Our house had a bad __________ for our neighbourhood.

A. attract B. treated C. reputation

Who got most of the _________ ?

A. life B. votes C. people

Can you ___________ a child from a poor family?

A. pretend B. look C. sponsor

Do you know the ___________ of the Scouting movement?

A. cheaper B. founder C. fever

Is it polite to ________ people?

A. ignore B. untie C. appear

Task 2.

Express the meaning of each phrase in one word.

Full of fear – a_ _ _ _ d
to take the first step – b_ _ _ n
a town where a seat of government is – c_ _ _ _ _ l
the end of life – d_ _ _ h
to come or to go into – e _ _ _ r
very well known – f _ _ _ _ s
to take place – h _ _ _ _ n
to spring over – j _ _ p
the male rule of the country – k _ _ g
a speech to a group of people – l _ _ _ _ _ e
to walk like a soldier – m _ _ _ h
the dark part of each day – n _ _ _ t
not shut – o _ _ n
to put in the ground to grow – p _ _ _ t

Task 3.

Choose the right variant:

I … learn the French language.

A . am not B. don’t C . isn’t

2… anyone … this car? No, it’s free, you can take it.

A . Do … use B . Are … using C . Is … using

3. I … this sandwich. I’m not hungry.

A. Don’t want B. have moved C . doesn’t want

4. I … the dishes before mum came back from her work.

A. washed B . was washing C. had washed

5. … it … raining yet?

A. Has … stopped B. Had … stopped C . Did … stop

6. … Tom … home when you saw him?

A . Has … gone B . Did … go C . Was … going

7. James … a new car last month.

A. bought B. has bought C. had bought

8. This house is one of … in the street.

A. higher B. the highest C . as high

9. Let’s go by train. It’s much … .

A. cheap B. cheaper C . the cheapest

10. He was one of the … criminals in the country.

A. dangerous B . more dangerous C . most dangerous

11. I heard a noise. There is … in the cupboard.

A. anything B. nothing C. something

TRANSFER ALL YOUR ANSWERS TO YOUR ANSWER SHEET

WRITING

Ты получил письмо от своего друга из Англии по имени Tom Green, который пишет…

… I live in Manchester. I like my city very much but sometimes the people here are not very friendly and they don’t try to keep our city clean and beautiful. And do you enjoy living in a small town? How do you spend your spare time there?
Anyway, I’m thinking of travelling to Russia next summer. Could you tell me what weather to expect?

Напиши ему ответ, согласно правилам написания письма другу. Объем высказывания 80-100 слов.

КЛЮЧИ

1 Listening

2. Reading

3. Use of English

Task 1. Task 2. Task 3.

	afraid
	begin
	capital
	death
	enter
	famous
	happen
	jump
	king
	lecture
	march
	night
	open
	plant

ANSWER LIST

БЛАНК ОТВЕТОВ

1 Listening

2. Reading

Прочитайте текст и заполните пропуски 1-6 частями предложений, обозначенными буквами A-G. Одна из частей в списке A-G лишняя.

Lindsay Wildlife Museum

Lindsay Wildlife Museum is a unique natural history and environmental education centre where visitors can listen to the cry of a red-tailed hawk, go eye-to-eye with a grey fox and watch a bald eagle eat lunch. More than fifty species of native California animals are on exhibit here.
Thousands of school children learn about the natural environment in their classrooms (1) _________ of the museum. Nature- and science-oriented classes and trips are offered for adults and children. More than 600 volunteers help to feed and care for wild animals, (2) _______.·Volunteers are active in the museum’s work, contributing (3) ________.
The museum was founded by a local businessman, Alexander Lindsay. Sandy, as friends knew him, started teaching neighborhood children about nature in the early 1950s. Initially housed in an elementary school, the museum began offering school-aged children summer classes, (4) ______________.
After nearly a decade of the museum operation, it became apparent (5) _____________ . With a new 5,000 square-foot home, the museum could now develop and display a permanent collection of live, native wildlife and natural history objects.
People came to the museum for help with wild animals (6) __________ urban growth. In response, a formal wildlife rehabilitation programme- the first of its kind in the United States of America — began in 1970.

A. that a permanent, year-round site was necessary
B. as well as field trips focused on the natural world
C. many hours of service to wildlife care and fundraising
D. that had been injured or orphaned because of intense
E. that needed public attention and a new building
F. as well as teach children and adults about nature
G. through education programmes and on-site tours
Прочитайте текст и выполните задания 7-13.

Shape it up: tips you can follow for a healthier campus diet

Rushing up and down the streets, I often have days when I wonder how I will find the time to eat. This is when it becomes easy for students to turn to fast food. Once you stop living close by or have awkward time gaps between classes, fast food is available at almost every on-campus eatery.
There’s no doubt that the university tries to make healthier food readily available. Some cafes have organic foods ready to go and Greenhouse allows students to make almost any kind of fresh salad they can think of. But I have to wonder, why is there so much fast food available? For many students, it’s difficult to choose an expensive salad from Greenhouse over a meal from Taco Bell.
To solve the problem of finding healthy food on campus without having to eat salad daily, I do three things: take advantage of meal options I previously disregarded, completely ignore any fast food place and get creative in the dining halls.
First, I take advantage of meal options I had previously disregarded at on campus restaurants. Being both a vegetarian and interested in a fair-trade diet has made it somewhat challenging to arrange an eating plan while living on campus. With limited options, food gets old fast. I looked closely at menus to see what options I overlooked. On campus, I eat oatmeal and fresh fruit instead of getting smoothies. I try the soup at Greenhouse instead of salad. If I have time in the morning I use an extra swipe and pack a lunch. By including this, I now have something new to eat each day, and I can go an entire school week without repeating a lunch.
As I create a pattern of eateries to maintain a healthy diet without losing interest in the food, it is clear I cannot include every on-campus restaurant in my plan.
This is where my second solution comes in. I have learned to completely ignore fast food. If I linger in front of Panda Express or Sbarro too long, temptation takes over. I started ignoring these places in the middle of fall quarter, and now I can walk by them without a thought. The only way I know to accomplish this is willpower. Of course, that does not mean in any way that you should never allow yourself the occasional visit to these restaurants. Everyone deserves a treat sometimes. I know I can never give up animal-style fries completely.
Finally, I have learned to get creative in dining halls. This can’t easily be done outside a dining hall, so it isn’t exactly an «on-the-go» solution to eating on campus. Just the same, it can help make meals less boring. I often take a veggie patty and make a wrap out of it, and I use the salad bar to throw on any other toppings I want. I use the microwave to heat up whatever I want in it. If you are a meat lover, you can put the bacon bits from the salad bar or slice a grilled chicken breast to put in soup or pasta.
When living on a college campus, it can be difficult to find a way to eat what you like and what’s good for you while trying to avoid a repetitive diet. There are a limited number of options available and the dominance of fast food can be hard to ignore. But if you try out as many places as you can, use willpower and turn on your creativity, you can certainly design your own healthy meal plan that won’t feel as if you eat the same thing every day.

7. According to the author students turn to fast food when …

1) their schedule is well adjusted.
2) they are short of time.
3) they live close to the campus.
4) they have no willpower.

8. What does the author think about eating opportunities on campus?

1) She believes they need to provide more organic food.
2) She thinks they do a great job providing salads at a reasonable price.
3) She can’t understand why they offer so many fast food choices.
4) She thinks that meals from Taco Bell are too expensive.

9. What is the author’s method of maintaining a healthy diet?

1) Carefully choosing an on-campus restaurant.
2) Changing a restaurant daily.
3) Eating less.
4) Trying new dishes on the menu.

10. What is NOT characteristic of the author’s eating habits?

1) She avoids eating meat.
2) She misses lunches.
3) She studies the menus attentively.
4) She tries to vary the food she eats.

11. What is, according to the author, the best way to stop eating fast food?

1) Visit fast food restaurants not more than once a year.
2) To replace it with the animal-style fries.
3) Not to walk near fast food restaurants.
4) To stick to the decision not to eat it.

12. What does «it» in paragraph 7 refer to («Just the same, it can help … «)?

1) Finding a perfect solution to eating on campus.
2) Cooking your own meals.
3) Creativity in a dining hall.
4) Eating outside of dining halls.

13. What is the purpose of the article?

1) To give advice on eating healthy food on campus.
2) To convince the reader that eating the same food every day is unhealthy.
3) To classify on-campus eateries.
4) To prove that daily consumption of fast food is harmful.

USE OF ENGLISH

Прочитайте приведенные ниже тексты. Преобразуйте, если необходимо, слова, напечатанные заглавными буквами в конце строк, обозначенных номерами 14-20 так, чтобы они грамматически соответствовали содержанию текстов.

The popsicle

Not all new things are created by wise old scientists. Frank Epperson invented the popsicle, fruit ice cream without milk, in 1905 when he was only 11 years old. Frank (14) _______________ his drink outside on the porch overnight with the stir stick in it.

That night the temperature dropped and froze things, (15) __________ Frank’s drink. That didn’t stop him from tasting it.

18 years (16) _________________ Frank started his business.

Just over 1 billion popsicles (17) ____________ in the US each year. Out of the 30 flavors to choose from, orange has been the favorite for many years.

LEAVE

INCLUDE

LATE

EAT

Mother’s Day

Прочитайте приведенный ниже текст. Образуйте от слов, напечатанных заглавными буквами в конце строк, обозначенных номерами 21-26, однокоренные слова, так, чтобы они грамматически и лексически соответствовали содержанию текста.

Cyberspace communication

Nowadays most of us go to our computers to connect with friends instead of using our phones. Cyberspace relationships have become the norm for many people, even the most (21) _________________ ones.

The convenience and (22) ______________of the Web is amazing. If we want to see a movie, find a place to eat or get in touch with a friend, we go to the Web before we call on the phone.

Critics, however, say that cyberspace communication loses some important factors of the social atmosphere. Most Web (23) ______________ don’t understand that when we talk to someone, we get many messages from them just by their tone of voice and body language.

A tender (24) ____________and eye contact cannot possibly be experienced over the Internet.

As with anything we do, without regular practice the act can become unfamiliar and (25) _______________ .

There is a possibility that much can be (26) ____________lost when we communicate via the Internet.

EFFECTIVE

EXPRESS

REAL

Прочитайте текст с пропусками, обозначенными номерами 27-33. Эти номера соответствуют заданиям 27-33, в которых представлены возможные варианты ответов.

Diana had been hoping to get away by 5:00, so she could be at the farm in time for dinner. She tried not to show her true feelings when at 4:37 her deputy, Phil Haskings, presented her with a complex twelve-page document that (27)______ the signature of a director before it could be sent out to the client. Haskins didn’t hesitate to (28)_______ her that they had lost two similar contracts that week.
To (29) ___________the truth, it was always the same on a Friday. The phones would go quiet in the middle of the afternoon and then, just as she thought she could leave, a new document would land on her desk. Diana looked at the document and knew there would be no chance of escaping before 6:00.
Diana adored her children. At first (30) ________ she looked happy. The demands of being a single parent as well as a director of a small but thriving City company meant there were (31)_______ moments left in any day to relax. When it came to the one weekend in four that James and Caroline spent with her ex-husband, Diana would try to leave the office a little earlier than usual to avoid the weekend traffic.
She read through the first page slowly, aware that any mistake (32) _____________ hastily on a Friday evening could be (33) _____________ in the weeks to come. She glanced at the clock on her desk as the signed the final page of the document. It was just showing 5:51.

27 1) obliged 2) demanded 3) required 4) compelled
28 1) recall 2) remember 3) recollect 4) remind
29 1) tell 2) speak 3) talk 4) say
30 1) glimpse 2) look 3) sight 4) view
31 1) few 2) little 3) much 4) many
32 1) took 2) made 3) held 4) done
33 1) disappointed 2) dissatisfied 3) apologized 4) regretted

WRITING

You have received a letter from your English-speaking pen-friend Jane who writes:
… Last weekend was my mom’s anniversary and we had a family gathering.
We entertained more than 25 people and lived on leftovers for 2 days after the
event. What do you usually cook for special occasions? How often do you
entertain people in your family? Do you normally celebrate your family
holidays at home, or go to a cafe or to a club? Why?
Oh, before l forget, my middle brother won our school tennis tournament …

Write a letter to Jane.
In your letter
answer her questions
ask 3 questions about her middle brother

Ключи

	G
	F
	C
	B
	A
	D
	2
	3

Олимпиада по английскому языку

школьный этап

2015-2016 учебный год

Пояснительная записка

Основными целями и задачами Олимпиады являются выявление и развитие у

обучающихся творческих способностей и интереса к английскому языку, создание необходимых условий для поддержки одаренных детей, пропаганда лингвистических и социокультурных знаний, связанных с историей и современным функционированием различных вариантов английского языка и историей и культурой англоязычных стран.

Задания олимпиады носят проблемно-поисковый характер и выявляют

творческий потенциал участника, соответствуют всем требованиям тестовых

заданий.

Задачей школьного этапа олимпиады по английскому языку является популяризация английского языка в школе, привлечение как можно большего числа школьников к участию в олимпиаде, поэтому задания должны быть интересными и посильными для учащихся соответствующих возрастных групп.

Для обеспечения комплексного характера проверки уровня коммуникативной

компетенции участников школьный этап олимпиады проводится по трем видам речевой деятельности:

конкурс понимания письменной речи (Reading)

лексико-грамматический тест (Use of English)

конкурс письменной речи (Writing).

для 5-6 классов – A1 -A2;

для 7-8 классов – A2 -B1;

для 9 - 11 классов – B1 -B2.

При подготовке заданий сочетаются задания разного уровня сложности (т.е.

сочетаются более сложные и менее сложные задания, чтобы участники могли выполнить хотя бы одно олимпиадное задание). Уровни сложности разных заданий внутри пакета заданий для одной возрастной группы не расходятся больше, чем на одну ступень.

Время проведения конкурсов:

5-6 классы - 50 минут

7-8 классы - 50минут

9 - 11 классы - 75 минут

Максимальное количество баллов

5-6 классы -85 баллов

7-8 классы - 30 баллов

9 - 11 классы - 50 баллов

Комплект заданий для учащихся 5-6 классов

Reading

15 minutes.

Task 1.

Read the text about Martin and mark the sentences with the letter (T) if the information is true and with the letter (F) if it is false.

My clothes.
I like trousers and jeans. I don’t like shirts but I like T-shirts and sweatshirts. I also like baseball caps. My favourite colours are blue and red.
At school I usually wear my black trousers or blue jeans, and a T-shirt or sweatshirt. I’ve got a lot of T-shirts. My favourite T-shirt is blue with a picture of a tiger on it. I usually wear trainers. I’ve got some black shoes, but I don’t like them.
At the moment I’m wearing blue jeans, a red and blue sweatshirt and my new trainers. I really love my new trainers!

1. Martin likes jeans. ___
2 . He doesn’t like sweatshirts. ___
3 . His favourite colours are blue and green. ___
4 . He usually wears green trousers at school. ___
5 . His favourite T-shirt is black. ___
6 . He doesn’t like his black shoes. ___
7 . Martin wears trainers. ___
8 . At the moment he is wearing green and blue sweatshirt. ___
9 . He doesn’t like trainers. ___
10 . Martin has got a lot of T-shirts.___

Task 2

Read the text and fill in the correct word.

l ove park meat tail big

My dog is called Sam and it is three years old. Is is black and _________ (11) and it has got a long ___________ (12) . It has got big ears too.

I must take Sam for a walk every day. I take it to the _______________ (13) with my dad. Sam can run fast, but it can’t catch balls. Sam must eat a lot of _____________ (14) , but it must not eat ice cream. It must drink lots of water too. It sleeps in my bedroom.

I _______________ (15) Sam because it is friendly and clever. When I’m sad, Sam makes me happy again!

Use of English

15 minutes.

Task 1.

Read the letter of an English boy John and choose the suitable words.

Dear pen friend,

Hello! My name (16) John. I (17) in Boston. I (18) got a big house. There (19) four rooms in the house. There (20) a living room, a dining room and two bedrooms in the house. Our kitchen is very large and my mother (21) there many tasty things. I (22) my room with my brother Ted.

Next summer we (23) to the camp together and we’ll have fun there. My (24) food is fish. My father had a job in the bank. He (25) that in Australia there are a lot of people from Boston.

Please write back soon.

Bye,

John.

1) is

2) am

3) are

1) lives

2) live

3) lived

1) will have

2) has

3) have

1) is

2) am

3) are

1) is

2) am

3) are

1) cooks

2) cook

3) will cook

1) share

2) shares

3) shared

1) go

2) goes

3) shall go

1) favourite

2) like

3) nice

1) said

2) says

3) say

Task 2.

Which word is different?

26. A) Milk B) Tomato C) Steak D) Chair

27 . A) Blender B) TV C) Fridge D) Bus

28. A) Wolf B) Horse C) Cow D) Pig

29. A) April B) February C) Thursday D) September

30. A) Run B) Jump C) High D) Teach

31 . A) Tomorrow B) Yesterday C) Today D) Wednesday

32 . A) Finger B) Toe C) Forehead D) Paw

33 . A) Driver B) Librarian C) Vet D) Lazy

34 . A) Behind B) Between C) In front of D) Get up

35 . A) Hedgehog B) Sparrow C) Parrot D) Swan

Writing

Time 15 minutes.

Imagine that your foreign friend from the Internet asked you to write him about yourself. Write an e-mail to him and tell about yourself.

Do not forget to write about:

your appearance

your family

your friends

your hobbies

You should write about 50 – 60 words.

Бланк ответов (Answer Sheet)

Ф.И._____________________

Класс______________________________

Задание 1 .Reading(15 points)

Задание 2. Use of English (20 points)

Задание 3.Writing (10 points)

From:____________________________________________________________ To:_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Keys

Reading

big

tail

park

meat

love

Use of English

Комплект заданий для учащихся 7-8 классов

Time: 20 minutes

Read the text and the questions below. For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C .

Time for coffee

T he story of coffee drinking is one of the greatest and most fascinating in history. Millions of coffee drinkers worldwide cannot imagine life without a cup of aromatic coffee in the morning. Coffee is a natural stimulant which makes us feel more awake, alert and ready to concentrate.

The qualities of mocca, as coffee was once known, were first discovered in Ethiopia more than one thousand years ago. However, it was not Africans but Turks and Arabs who actively encouraged coffee drinking. The habit of coffee drinking quickly spread throughout the Arab world, where coffee won a reputation as the wine of Islam.

Coffee was first grown in Yemen. It was popular with Turks who served the drink to Italian merchants. In 1615 traders from Venice brought coffee to Europe, where it was originally sold as a medicine. By the end of the sixteenth century coffee was drunk in major European cities from Paris to London. Now, around the world there are different methods of preparing coffee, for example, in Turkey coffee is traditionally boiled three times while Italians are the inventors of espresso and cappuccino.

1 Coffee was discovered

a in Europe.

b in Africa.

c in Asia.

2 Coffee drinking was popularized by

a the Ethiopians.

b the Italians.

c the Turks.

3 Coffee was first grown

a in Italy.

b in Turkey.

C in Yemen.

4 In Europe, coffee was popular as

a a medicine.

b the wine of Islam.

c a natural stimulant.

5 By the end of the sixteenth century people drank coffee

a in northern Europe.

b in the most important European cities.

c in Paris and London only.

Task 2

Read the holiday brochure and decide if each statement (6-10) is True (A) or False (B).

Circle the correct answer on your answer sheet.

Niagara Falls

Niagara Falls is located between Southern Ontario (Canada) and New York State (USA). The first inhabitants who settled in the Niagara Falls region were the Iroquois. They worked as farmers and trades along the banks of the Niagara River. When the first Europeans set foot in the area, they also settled there. The 19th century brought the most important developments to the area. The Village of Manchester (Niagara Falls) became an important center for manufacturing companies during the early years of the industrial development. Tourists started to arrive in the 1820s and they still visit this after almost two centuries.

The most comfortable way to visit Niagara Falls is a boat trip on the world famous Maid of the Mist. This historical boat tour takes millions of tourists to the Falls from the Canadian to the American side every year. Don’t miss two other important attractions: the White Water Walk, an amazing tour through a deep narrow gorge and the Journey Behind the Falls, a self-guided tour which takes you to an observation platform at the base of the Falls in a lift. You can then go on a short journey through some tunnels which lead you behind the Falls.

After a day of exciting adventure, visit Niagara Square with all its shops, cinemas and boutiques. There are lots of restaurants that serve locally grown products and regional cuisine. At night, experience local clubs with live music and entertainment. Don’t forget the fireworks over the Falls every Friday and Sunday!

6. This information is to help tourists who want to spend a holiday in Canada.

7. You can see the Falls only on board a boat.

8. The first people who made their home there were Europeans.

9. You can taste only local food.

10. You can have a fun at night.

USE OF ENGLISH

Time: 10 minutes

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, mark the

correct letter – A, B, C or D. Number (0) has been done for you as an example.

FATHERS AND SONS

Harry Redknapp and Frank Lampard played football together (0)……. West Ham football club during the 1960s. They (1)............... best friends and married two sisters so their sons, Frank Lampard junoior and Jamie Redknapp, are (2) ............... . The boys’ fathers used to take them to the football field after school and make them (3) ............... . All the hard work meant that both boys became very good (4) ............... playing football and both have played for England like their fathers. Harry and Frank (5) ............... playing football for West Ham in the 1980s. However, they didn’t leave the club. Later, Harry became the manager of West Ham and Frank senior became assistant manager. Frank junior (6) ............... them and played for West Ham (7) ............... Jamie went to the other side of the country and played for Liverpool. Jamie and Frank are friends just like their fathers and (8) ……….. spending time together when they can. But they aren’t married to two sisters. Jamies’s wife is (9) ............... pop star who hasn’t got (10) ............... sisters.

A in

B for

C at

D аgainst

A had

B did

C were

D went

A cousins

B nephews

C brothers-in-laws

D uncles

A trained

B train

C training

D trains

A at

B to

C with

D on

A continued

B stopped

C began

D missed

A attended

B added

C shared

D joined

A so

B but

C because

D also

A enjoy

B want

C decide

D agree

A the

B one

D that

A some

B no

C few

D any

Transfer your answers to the answer sheet!

WRITING

Time: 20 minutes

ID NUMBER

What will you write to your British friend about your summer holidays?

In your letter write about:

where you spend your summer holidays;
what you like doing most of all;
your impressions about your holidays.

You should write about 90 -100 words.

Participant’s ID number

Reading

Use of English

Комплект заданий для учащихся 9-11 классов

READING

Time: 30 minutes

Florence Nightingale

Florence Nightingale’s parents were rich English land owners. Florence was born in Florence, Italy on 12 May 1820. Her parents named her after the city where she was born. Victorian women didn’t usually go to school but Florence’s father believed that women should get an education so he taught Florence and her older sister at home. they learned Italian, Latin, Greek, History and Maths.
As Florence grew up, she became interested in social problems. when she was twelve years old, she decided she wanted to do something useful with her life. She enjoyed visiting sick people in her neighbourhood.
Florence was extraordinary because most Victorian middle-class women didn’t have careers but Florence wanted to become a nurse. Her parents didn’t want her to become a nurse because nurses were usually working-class women. In fact, they didn’t want Florence to work at all, they wanted her to get married. However, her parents’ disapproval didn’t stop Florence doing what she wanted.
Florence went to Germany to learn about nursing. at that time nurses learned through experience, not through training. Florence looked after sick people, gave medicine out and helped during operations. She was very happy and she explained why: “we learned to think of our work, not ourselves.”
In 1854, Britain entered the Crimean war. Florence and a team of 38 nurses went to the Crimea to help the wounded soldiers. The military hospitals were dirty and badly organized. Florence made the hospitals clean and safe. The number of deaths in hospitals went down from 40% to 2%. Florence was kind and gentle with the soldiers. When she walked around the hospital at night she carried a lamp and that’s how she got the nickname “the Lady with the Lamp.”
After the war people from all over the world asked for her advice on designing hospitals. Florence thought nurses should learn through both experience and training. In 1860, she opened her training school for nurses. Today the Nightingale nurses still care for the sick and the poor.

1. What have you learnt about Florence’s parents?

A They were Italian citizens.
B They gave education to their children.
C They learned Italian, Latin, Greek, history and maths.

2. How was Florence different from most other women of her time?

A She wanted to be in work.
B Her parents didn’t allow her to work.
C She wanted to do something useful in her life.

3. How did Florence begin her career?

A She studied to be a nurse in Germany.
B She was working with her parents.
C She learned the nursing skills when she cared for the sick.

4. She gave medicine out in lines 15-16 means

A She brought medicine to a number of people.
B She took medicine out of the hospital.
C She made medicine for the sick.

5. How did Florence change hospitals?

A The number of patients went down.
B She set higher standards for hospitals.
C She put lamps everywhere in hospitals.

Here is some information about pandas. Read the information and the statements below and circle T if the statement is true, F if the statement is false or U (unstated) if there is no such information in the text.

So rare is the giant panda that today there are thought to be only about 1000 individuals in the entire world. It is listed as an endangered species and has been seen in the wild only in the mountains of central China and eastern Tibet.
The name panda applies to either of two East Asian animals. Although they are sometimes considered to be relative, the giant panda is generally classified as a bear, and the lesser panda, also called the red, or common panda, is placed in the raccoon family.
The giant panda is about 4 to 5 feet (1.2 to 1.5 meters) long from the tip of its nose to its rump, and it has a stubby tail. Adults weigh about 165 to 350 pounds (75 to 160 kilograms). They have a thick, woolly, white coat with black fur on the legs and ears. The animals are distinguished by black eye patches and a black band across the shoulders.
Giant pandas usually live alone in bamboo forests. They are mainly ground dwellers, using hollow trees, or rock crevices for shelter, but they can climb the trees as well. The giant panda feeds chiefly on bamboo shoots and roots, grasping the slender stems with the aid of a special tomblike structure on its front feet. They sometimes eat small animals.
Giant pandas are popular zoo animals, but they are extremely difficult to breed. In 1980 there were about 40 in captivity in China and about 13 in other countries. Su-Lin, first of the very few giant pandas to be exhibited in the West, reached the United States as an infant in 1936 and was a popular attraction at the Brookfield Zoo, near Chicago, III., until his death in 1938. In April 1972 the Chinese government sent two others, a male and a female, to the National Zoo in Washington, D.C.
The lesser panda is found in China, Myanmar, Sikkim, and Nepal in high mountain forests and bamboo thickets. Because of its unusual catlike appearance, it is sometimes called a bear cat, or cat bear. The long, soft coat hairs are rusty red to dark chestnut. The face and ears are mostly white, but the backs of the ears are reddish brown.
The pandas travel in pairs or small family groups. Lesser pandas are known for their generally mild disposition. During the day this panda sleeps curled up in a tree with tail over its head or sitting on a limb with its head tucked under its chest and between its forelegs. It feeds at night, eating bamboo sprouts, grasses, fruits, other plant material, and, occasionally, small animals.

6) The giant panda should be protected.

7) Two pandas are of different families.

8) Red pandas live together with raccoons.

9) Giant pandas live in the holes in the ground.

10) It is not easy to grow pandas in the zoo.

11) There is special panda attraction in Chicago.

12) Su-Lin died in the zoo, because of his illness.

13) Pandas are night animals.

14) Some pandas look like raccoons, others have unusual catlike appearance.

15) Giant pandas and lesser pandas sleep in a different way.

USE OF ENGLISH

Time: 15 minutes

Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text

Earthquakes are amongst the most destructive …………..(1) disasters. They usually …………………(2) without any warning and ………………(3) in a great ……………………..(4) of life and an enormous demolition of buildings. Additionally, they may cause devastating landslides or create gigantic tidal waves which, in …………………….(5), are colossal walls of water smashing into seashores with such force that they are …………………(6) of destroying coastal cities. However, the …………..(7) majority of fatalities and serious injuries …………………….(8) about when buildings ……………………..(9).

Most frequently, the earthquake lasts 30 to 60 seconds, so usually there is no time to …………………(10) the mortal ……………………. (11) once the shaking starts. The savage forces of an earthquake trigger …………………….(12) a complex chain ……………………..(13) in the building’s structure when it is shaken, lifted, pushed or pulled. A building’s height , its shape and construction materials are the most significant …………………(14) deciding about the survival or collapse of the structure and, consequently, about the life or death of its ………………………….(15).

a) nature b) naturalistic c) natural d) native

a) hit b) strike c) fall d) attack

a) result b) effect c) lead d) cause

a) fatality b) waste c) harm d) loss

a) fact b) certainty c) honesty d) truth

a) potential b) conceivable c) capable d) possible

a) wide b) broad c) full d) vast

a) bring b) come c) lay d) make

a) demolish b) jumble c) destroy d) collapse

a) avert b) evade c) abstain d) restrain

a) upkeep b) upturn c) upshot d) uptake

a) up b) on c) out d) off

a) activity b) motion c) progress d) reaction

a) factors b) phenomena c) points d) ingredients

a) settlers b) citizens c) inhabitants d) burghers

WRITING

Time: 30 minutes

Comment on the following piece of news:

Perhaps fast food is the quickest way to satisfy your hunger. But according to many experts, fast food can cause serious illnesses.

Write 100 -120 words.

Remember to

Make an introduction,

Express your personal opinion on modern expeditions and give reasons for your

opinion,

Make a conclusion.

Participant’s ID number

ANSWER SHEET

Reading

Use of English

Writing

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Ключи к заданиям

7-8 классы

Reading

1b 2c 3c 4a 5b 6F 7F 8F 9T 10T

Use of English

1C 2A 3B 4A 5B 6D 7B 8A 9C 10D

9-11 классы

Reading

1B2A 3C 4A 5D 6T 7T 8F 9F 10T 11F 12U 13T 14F 15U

Use of English

6. c

11. c

7. d

12. d

8. b

13. d

9. d

14. a

10. a

15. c

Всероссийская олимпиада школьников

I (школьный) этап

Английский язык

5-6 классы

Комплект для учителя

Общее время выполнения работы – 60 минут

Максимальное количество баллов – 26

В комплект материалов, необходимых для проведения конкурса входят:

2. Описание процедуры проведения конкурса

3. Текст задания

4. Ключи

5. Лист ответа (для каждого участника)

ЗАДАНИЯ ОЛИМПИАДЫ ТВОРЧЕСКИ ОРИЕНТИРОВАНЫ И НЕ ЯВЛЯЮТСЯ ПРОСТЫМ ПОВТОРЕНИЕМ ФОРМАТА ЕГЭ

Понимание устного текста (Listening)

Критерии оценивания : За каждый правильный ответ дается 1 балл. Задания 1-4.

Понимание письменного текста (Reading)

Задание по чтению направлено на понимание текста. От ученика требуется прочитать текст и закончить десять предложений, выбрав правильный ответ из предложенных ниже . На выполнение задания отводится 20 минут , в которые входит и внесение ответов в ответные листы. Правильность выполнения заданий проверяется по ключам.

Критерии оценивания : За каждый правильный ответ дается 1 балл . Задания 5-14. Максимальное количество баллов – 10.

Лексико-грамматический тест (Use of English)

Всего в данном блоке 8 вопросов.

Учащиеся должны продемонстрировать соответствующий уровень владения лексическим материалом и умение оперировать им в условиях множественного выбора. Задания 15-22.

Учащемуся требуется проявить знания грамматики и лексики и вставить пропуски в предложение из предложенного выбора, найти вариант с грамматической ошибкой, найти букву, подходящую для всех предложенных слов, подобрать верный перевод предложения, употребить нужный артикль, найти слово другой части речи.

За каждый правильный ответ дается 1 балл . Максимальное количество баллов – 8.

Правильность выполнения заданий проверяется по ключам.

Социо-культурная компетенция

Задание представляет собой 4 вопроса, нацеленных на знание учащимися информации страноведческого и социокультурного характера в рамках школьной программы. Задание оценивается в 1 балл за каждый правильный ответ. Задания 23-26. Максимальное количество баллов – 4. Рекомендуемое время для выполнения задания – 10 минут.

Правильность выполнения заданий проверяется по ключам.

Процедура проведения конкурса

Общие правила

Участники должны сидеть в аудитории на таком расстоянии друг от друга, чтобы не видеть работу соседа.
Участник может взять с собой в аудиторию ручку, очки, шоколад, воду.
В аудиторию не разрешается брать бумагу, справочные материалы (словари, справочники, учебники и т.д.), пейджеры и мобильные телефоны, диктофоны, плейеры и любые другие технические средства.
Во время выполнения задания участник может выходить из аудитории только в сопровождении дежурного.
Участник не может выйти из аудитории с заданием или листом ответов.

Процедура проведения

Каждому участнику перед началом выполнения заданий выдается Лист с заданиями и проводится инструктаж на русском языке по процедуре проведения Олимпиады, заполнению ответов и по порядку сдачи работы по окончании :

Участники заполняют графу Participant"s ID number на листах с заданиями.
НА РАБОТАХ КАТЕГОРИЧЕСКИ ЗАПРЕЩАЕТСЯ УКАЗЫВАТЬ ФАМИЛИИ, ДЕЛАТЬ РИСУНКИ ИЛИ КАКИЕ-ЛИБО ОТМЕТКИ, В ПРОТИВНОМ СЛУЧАЕ РАБОТА СЧИТАЕТСЯ ДЕШИФРОВАННОЙ И НЕ ОЦЕНИВАЕТСЯ.
Исправления ошибками не считаются; однако почерк должен быть понятным; спорные случаи (о или а) трактуются не в пользу участника .
Задания выполняются только черными или синими чернилами/ пастой (запрещены красные, зеленые чернила, карандаш).

Участники могут ознакомиться с вопросами до прослушивания.

Процедура аудирования записана на диск. ПОСЛЕ ПЕРВОГО ПРОСЛУШИВАНИЯ ЧЛЕН ЖЮРИ ВКЛЮЧАЕТ ЗАПИСЬ ПОВТОРНО. Двум заданиям соответствуют два трека. Запись задания на диске предъявляется 2 раза подряд (допускается техническая пауза в 10-15 секунд).

Участникам раздаются тексты заданий и бумага для черновиков. В тексте заданий даны все инструкции по выполнению заданий. Участники получают чистую бумагу для черновиков, черновик сдается вместе с заданиями. Однако проверке подлежат только листы с заданиями. Черновики не проверяются.

Член жюри в аудитории должен зафиксировать время начала и окончания задания на доске.

После окончания времени выполнения заданий, листы с заданиями собираются.

Сразу после написания олимпиады, работы участников передают руководителю ШМО, который организует проверку работ специально созданной комиссией ОУ. Проверка работ осуществляется под руководством опытного руководителя дающего указания и инструкции группе проверяющих преподавателей. Критерии оценивания в виде таблицы выдаются на руки каждому проверяющему. Дешифровка работ производится после окончательного оценивания работ. По результатам выстраивается рейтинг участников Олимпиады.

Критерии оценивания

III место	От 50% до 69%
II место	От 70% до 90%
I место	От 91% до 100%

ПРИЛОЖЕНИЕ 1

ШКОЛЬНАЯ ОЛИМПИАДА

5-6 КЛАСС

LISTENING

4 БАЛЛА

Задание 1. (Трек 1) Послушай четырех людей. К каждому говорящему(1-4) подбери его характеристику (A-D).

1. Patrick _____ A. This person can play the guitar.

2 . Sharon _____ B. This person can use a computer.

3 . Mary ______ C. This person likes to watch tennis on TV.

4. Carl _______ D. This person doesn’t like pop music.

READING

10 БАЛЛОВ

Прочитай текст и заполни пропуски, выбрав правильный ответ из предложенных ниже

Frankie is green and very tall. He has yellow eyes, black hair and a small nose. He also has enormous hands and feet. He isn"t pretty. In fact, he"s very ugly and people call him a monster. They are afraid of him and always run away when they see him. But Frankie isn"t bad! He is an intelligent man and he loves reading. He has a lot of books in his little house.

He likes writing stories. He sells his stories to make money. He also likes using his computer and the Internet to write to people. They don"t know that he is ugly and they enjoy his letters. They sometimes ask him for his photograph, but Frankie never sends it.

Frankie enjoys gardening. There are a lot of vegetables, fruit trees and roses in his big garden. He loves roses! He puts bread out in the garden for the birds so there are a lot of birds too. They are not afraid of him!

Frankie never eats meat. He doesn"t like it. He eats vegetables, fruit and bread. Because he doesn"t like it when people run away from him, he orders all his shopping by the Internet. The shop delivers his shopping to his house. In this way, people don"t see him and he feels happier. And when it is raining he doesn"t have to go out of the house. He doesn"t like the rain and he is afraid of thunder and lightning.

5. Frankie has … .

A. black hair and big hands and feet

B. green eyes and a small nose

C. small hands and feet

6. People like writing to Frankie because … .

A. they don"t know that he is ugly

B. they meet him in the supermarket

C. they like to eat meat too

7. Frankie is … .

A. a good person

B. an evil person

C. a beautiful person

8. He lives in … .

A. a big house without a garden

B. a small house with a big garden

C. a small garden

9. He … a lot of books.

A. reads

B. speaks

C. does

10. Frankie sends his photo to … .

A. his Internet friends

B. nobody

C. the shop

11. Birds … .

A. don"t come into the garden

B. come into the garden

C. are afraid of Frankie

12. Frankie likes … .

A. gardening

B. eating meat

C. shopping in malls

13. Frankie goes to … .

A. the supermarket

B. the theatre

C. the garden to put the bread for the birds

14. Frankie is happy when … .

A. people don"t see him

B. he doesn"t see birds

C. he is in the supermarket

USE OF ENGLISH

8БАЛЛОВ

15. Заполните пропуск, выбрав правильный вариант

It often_______________ in winter in our place.

a/snows b/ is snowing c/ snowed d/snowing e/ snow

16. Найдите ошибку в степенях сравнения прилагательных и обведите неправильный вариант.

a / funny- funnier- the funniest

b/ good- better- the best

c/ hot- hoter – the hotest

d/ famous- more famous- the most famous

17. В каком случае вспомогательный глагол does стоит верно?

a/ When does your sister go to school?

b/ I does not like apples.

c/ Who does go to school every day?

D/They does not play tennis very well.

18. Во всех словах не хватает одной буквы. Какая это буква?

Ellow, - oung, - ard, - es.

a/ y b/ o c/ w d/ u

19. Выберите правильную пару глаголов для этих предложений.

It ______ sunny yesterday morning. My friend and I ______to the park.

a/ was, took b/ saw, went c/ was, played d/ was, went

20. Подберите верный перевод для этого предложения.

My mother’s hair is as long as my sister’s hair.

a/ Мои волосы длиннее, чем волосы моей мамы.

b/ Волосы моей сестры длиннее, чем волосы моей мамы.

c/ Волосы моей мамы длиннее, чем волосы моей сестры.

d/ Волосы моей мамы такие же длинные, как волосы моей сестры.

21. С этими именами существительными можно употребить неопределенный артикль «а».

И лишь в одном случае это будет «аn». Найдите это слово.

a / crocodile b/ elephant c/ picture d/ holiday

22. В данной цепочке слов 4 слова прилагательные, найдите слово другой части речи.

a/ victory b/ young c/ kind d/ honest

SOCIO-CULTURALCOMPETENCE

4 БАЛЛА

23. The UK consists of

a) Scotland, Wales; b) England, Wales, Ireland; c) England, Scotland, Wales, Northern Ireland

24. Charlie Chaplin was ….

a. the queen b. a scientist c. an actor d. a writer

25. Hallowe’en is celebrated on the …

a) 1st of January b) 31st of October c) 25th of December

26. The capital of Great Britain is …

A) Oxford b) Liverpool c) London

Ключи к заданиям.

LISTENING

4 баллов

READING

10 баллов

USE OF ENGLISH

8 баллов

Конкурс
Олимпиада
Конкурс-игра
Предметная неделя
Семейный конкурс
Детям с ОВЗ
Контрольный тест
Летний лагерь
Тесты онлайн

Дистанционные олимпиады Центра «Снейл»

Цели и задачи дистанционных олимпиад Центра «Снейл»:

проверка уровня знаний учащихся
формирование навыка самостоятельного присвоения знаний
формирование и развитие навыков самостоятельного поиска и анализа информации
формирование и развитие навыков использования сервисов Интернет в обучении
повышение мотивации к изучению предмета

Олимпиады

Дают возможность участнику проверить и углубить знания по конкретной школьной дисциплине или даже по одному ее разделу. Все задания дистанционных олимпиад разделены по возрастным группам и соответствуют школьным программам и требованиям ФГОС.